Answer the following questions on a separate document (Microsoft Word .docx), exploring how Aristotle develops an understanding of phantasia (“imagination”) in part 3 and noein (“thinking”) in part 4 of De Anima.
- Why does Aristotle say that phantasia is distinct from perception? (428a6ff.)
- Aristotle claims that “sensations are always true, imaginations are for the most part false” (a11-12) What does he mean and why is it important to state?
- How does Aristotle argue that imagination is distinct from belief? (428a19-b5). Can you identify the premises and conclusion?
- What positive relation does imagination have to perception? How is imagination related to motion? (428b10-17)
- How is "thinking" (noein) like perceiving? (429a13-17)
- In what sense is intellect purely potential? (a20)
- How does intellect differ from perception in its being unaffected? (429a30-b5)
- Why does Aristotle say intellect is separable? (b5)
- What kind of knowledge is Aristotle talking about at 429b6-9?
- How does the analogy of the writing tablet help explain the nature of intellect and its relation to its objects? (430a1-2)
Sample Solution