Notion of Universals

  • Discuss your take on the notion of Universals. Discuss how a general understanding of the evolved throughout the middle ages. Which philosopher’s take do you feel is the most viable or why are they all off base?

Discussion Post 2

  • Discuss Aquinas divisions of “law” and how this makes “knowledge” possible even in people who are not Christians. How reasonable do you see these divisions, and could they still be considered applicable today, why or why not?

Full Answer Section

          volution of the Understanding of Universals in the Middle Ages: The debate over universals in the Middle Ages was heavily influenced by the interpretations of Plato and Aristotle, often transmitted through Neoplatonic and Arabic philosophical traditions.
  1. Early Middle Ages (Platonic Realism): In the early medieval period, philosophers like Boethius (c. 480–524 AD) largely adopted a form of Platonic realism (or extreme realism). This view, sometimes called universalia ante rem (universals before the thing), posited that universals exist independently of particular objects, in a transcendent realm (Plato's Forms). For example, "humanity" exists as a perfect Form before any individual human exists, and individual humans "participate" in this Form. For Christian thinkers, these Forms were often identified with ideas in the mind of God. This perspective helped explain objective truth and moral standards.
  2. High Middle Ages (Aristotelian Realism/Moderate Realism): With the reintroduction of more complete works of Aristotle into Western Europe (especially via Islamic scholars), the dominant view shifted towards Aristotelian realism (or moderate realism). Philosophers like Thomas Aquinas (c. 1225–1274) championed this view, known as universalia in re (universals in the thing). They argued that universals do not exist separately from particular objects, but rather inhere within them. We abstract the concept of "humanity" from observing individual humans, but "humanity" itself only exists as a characteristic of humans. It is real, but it exists only in its instances. This approach aimed to reconcile philosophical realism with a more empirical understanding of the world.
  3. Late Middle Ages (Nominalism and Conceptualism): Towards the late Middle Ages, figures like William of Ockham (c. 1287–1347) challenged both Platonic and Aristotelian realism, promoting nominalism. Ockham argued for universalia post rem (universals after the thing), asserting that universals are merely names (nomina) or linguistic labels that we apply to groups of similar particulars. They have no real existence outside the mind or language. For Ockham, only particulars exist; the idea of "humanity" is just a mental concept or a word we use to group individual humans. A related position, conceptualism, held that universals exist as concepts in the human mind but not necessarily as independent external realities.
Which Philosopher's Take is Most Viable? I find Aristotle's (and by extension, Aquinas's) moderate realism to be the most viable. Here's why:
  • Avoids Platonic "Otherworldliness": Plato's Forms, existing in a separate, transcendent realm, feel intuitively problematic. How do particulars "participate" in them? How do we access knowledge of these Forms? Aristotle's view keeps universals grounded in the world we experience.
  • Explains Shared Qualities: Unlike strict nominalism, which struggles to explain why we group certain things together with the same name if there's no objective commonality, moderate realism acknowledges that there is a shared quality (e.g., "redness" inheres in all red things). Our concepts aren't arbitrary; they correspond to real commonalities in the world.
  • Empirical Basis for Knowledge: Aristotle's view aligns well with how we gain knowledge. We observe particulars, abstract common features, and form concepts. This process feels more consistent with human cognition and scientific inquiry than accessing pre-existing Forms.
  • Grounds for Objectivity: It allows for a degree of objectivity in our categories and classifications. If "redness" really exists in the apple and the fire truck, then our concept of "redness" isn't purely subjective; it corresponds to a real feature of reality.

Sample Answer

         

Discussion Post 1: The Notion of Universals

  The "problem of universals" is one of the most enduring and fundamental debates in metaphysics. At its core, it asks: What do particular things have in common when they share a quality or belong to the same kind? For instance, when we say "the apple is red" and "the fire truck is red," what is that "redness" they both possess? Does it exist as a distinct entity, or is it merely a concept in our minds, or just a word we use? My take on the notion of universals is that they are best understood as abstract concepts or properties that exist within the particulars themselves, discoverable through human reason and experience, rather than as separate, transcendent entities. This leans more towards an Aristotelian or moderate realist perspective, blended with elements of conceptualism. While "redness" isn't a physical object floating in some other realm, it's also not just a word; there is a real, shared quality that causes us to apply the word "red" to multiple things consistently. Our minds abstract this commonality from observing particulars